UPSC Prelims 2013–2026 — Environment, Ecology & Disaster Management
Protected Area Network: NP, WS, BR, etc. (10 Q)
Ecosystem and Ecology (35 Q)
Environmental Pollution (27 Q)
Biodiversity (38 Q)
Global Conservation Efforts (26 Q)
National Conservation Efforts (23 Q)
Climate Change: Causes and Implications (16 Q)
Environment, Sustainable Development and General Issues (14 Q)
Agriculture (19 Q)
UPSC Prelims 2026 Additions (12 Q)
1. Protected Area Network: NP, WS, BR, etc.
Q1. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.. The Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve includes Shendurney, Peppara, and Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuaries, along with the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.
Q2. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (2018)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Arunachal Pradesh. Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the foothills of the Eastern Himalaya, in the East Kameng District of Arunachal Pradesh.
Q3. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate, and arctic? (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Namdapha National Park. This choice matches the concept tested under Protected Area Network: NP, WS, BR, etc.; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q4. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park. The Park is located in the southwestern part of Loktak Lake. The Loktak Lake has a unique ecosystem called ‘Phumdi’ (a Manipuri word meaning floating mats of soil and vegetation).
Q5. Kolleru Lake: Confluence of Musi and Krishna Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, spread across five districts in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, is India’s largest tiger reserve, covering an area of 3,728 km²
Q6. Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 and 4 only. Desert National Park (DNP), located in Rajasthan across Jaisalmer and Barmer districts. DNP has 73 historically inhabited villages. It is vital for conserving the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard and supports 11 bird species.
Q7. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Kanha National Park. The hard ground swamp deer (Barasingha), the state animal of Madhya Pradesh, has made a strong recovery in Kanha National Park and Tiger Reserve (KNPTR) after nearing extinction.
Q8. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam. This choice matches the concept tested under Protected Area Network: NP, WS, BR, etc.; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q9. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, spread across five districts in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, is India’s largest tiger reserve, covering an area of 3,728 km²
Q10. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park Protected Area Network: NP, WS, BR, etc. 1 108. Valley of Flowers National Park is located in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand. It is situated in the temperate alpine zone. Protected Area Network: NP, WS, BR, etc.-Explanation 1
2. Ecosystem and Ecology
Q11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs. Biorock technology (mineral accretion technology) is used in the restoration of damaged coral reefs.
Q12. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only. Biorock technology (mineral accretion technology) is used in the restoration of damaged coral reefs.
Q13. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement ? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.. Aquatic plants like Hydrilla verticillata and water hyacinth can absorb and accumulate heavy metals from water, making them effective for removing toxic metals from aquatic ecosystems.
Q14. What is blue carbon? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems. “Blue carbon” denotes carbon captured and stored by ocean and coastal ecosystems
Q15. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Phosphorus cycle. Most phosphorus is stored in rocks and sediments and is released slowly through weathering, leaching, and mining.
Q16. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2. Attine ants, comprising over 200 species, cultivate mutualistic fungi in gardens.
Q17. With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: (2025) I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) II only. Oceans produce more oxygen than rainforests. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce roughly half of the world’s oxygen through photosynthesis. Surface water has much less dissolved oxygen than air, not more.
Q18. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q19. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q20. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Ant. Attine ants, comprising over 200 species, cultivate mutualistic fungi in gardens.
Q21. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the : (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas. The Miyawaki method involves planting 2–4 trees per square meter, creating self-sustaining forests in 2–3 years.
Q22. Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 4 only. Attine ants, comprising over 200 species, cultivate mutualistic fungi in gardens.
Q23. Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 3 and 5 only. The Miyawaki method involves planting 2–4 trees per square meter, creating self-sustaining forests in 2–3 years.
Q24. Protozoa Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q25. Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q26. Soil properties Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2, 3 and 4. The Miyawaki method involves planting 2–4 trees per square meter, creating self-sustaining forests in 2–3 years.
Q27. "Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees." This is the most likely description of (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) tropical rainforest. Warm and moist conditions cause rapid decomposition of leaf litter.
Q28. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news? (2018)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.. Prosopis juliflora (vilayati kikar), an exotic tree introduced from South America, is a major invasive species in India.
Q29. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q30. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders, and birds. Select the correct one using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q31. Which one of the following is the best description of the term 'ecosystem'? (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live. An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature where organisms interact with each other and with their physical environment.
Q32. Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest, and deciduous forest? (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 111 Ecosystem and Ecology. The vegetation of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands includes beach forests, mangroves, wet evergreen, semi-evergreen, moist deciduous forests, and grasslands.
Q33. Decay of organic matter Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 3 only. Attine ants, comprising over 200 species, cultivate mutualistic fungi in gardens.
Q34. Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 2 and 3. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q35. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain? (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings. In oceanic food chains, phytoplankton (like diatoms, coccolithophores, cyanobacteria) act as primary producers. Crustaceans feed on them, and herrings (fish) in turn feed on crustaceans.
Q36. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three? (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Crab. Mite, spider, and scorpion are arachnids; crab is a crustacean.
Q37. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis? (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.. Photosynthesis uses sunlight’s free energy, captured by chlorophyll, to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This energy is stored as ATP and NADPH, which power glucose synthesis.
Q38. Bacteria Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q39. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) water limits and fire. In grasslands, limited water and frequent fires prevent trees from replacing grasses during ecological succession
Q40. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity? (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans. y Net Ecosystem Production indicates the net organic carbon available for storage or export. y Net Primary Production (NPP) is the remaining energy after plant respiration. y Productivity order: Mangroves > Grasslands > Lakes > Oceans.
Q41. Plutonium Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only. Rhizobium is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium in a symbiotic relationship with leguminous plants like lentils, clover and alfalfa. Amaranth and purslane are non-leguminous and do not have nitrogen-fixing mechanisms.
Q42. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide. Acid rain forms when sulfur and nitrogen oxides from burning fossil fuels react with atmospheric water.
Q43. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism that are eaten by others. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 2 and 3. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q44. Death of vegetation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Some microorganisms thrive in extreme conditions: thermophiles above 100°C (hot springs, vents), psychrophiles below freezing (polar regions), and acidophiles in highly acidic environments (pH < 3), like acid mine drainage.
Q45. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms? (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Ecological niche. An ecological niche includes the range of conditions an organism can tolerate, the resources it uses, and its functional role in the ecosystem.
3. Environmental Pollution
Q46. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Only one. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q47. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain ?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q48. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Rice. This choice matches the concept tested under Environmental Pollution; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q49. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q50. Consider the following statements: (2025) Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with Limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q51. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels. This choice matches the concept tested under Environmental Pollution; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q52. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II explains Statement-I. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q53. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q54. Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only. Gold mining causes deforestation, water contamination, and releases large amounts of mercury. Mercury is also emitted from coal combustion in thermal power plants. So, Statement I and II are correct.
Q55. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q56. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q57. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q58. Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 4 only. Gold mining causes deforestation, water contamination, and releases large amounts of mercury. Mercury is also emitted from coal combustion in thermal power plants. So, Statement I and II are correct.
Q59. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) pesticides in agriculture.. Pesticides are chemicals used to kill pests such as insects, weeds, fungi, rodents, and bacteria. Examples used in agriculture include carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos.
Q60. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies. Waste-to-Energy (WtE) technologies convert waste into electricity, heat, or transport fuels. Pyrolysis converts plastic waste into solid, liquid, and gaseous fuels in the absence of oxygen. Plasma gasification treats municipal solid waste to produce syngas, which is used for generating electricity or heat.
Q61. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q62. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 3 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q63. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads' that are released into the environment? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.. Microbeads are tiny plastic particles (<5mm) used in cosmetics and cleaning products. They escape wastewater treatment, pollute water bodies, and harm marine life and human health.
Q64. Lowering of the water - table Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q65. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct option using the given code below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q66. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (2017)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen required by microbes to decompose organic waste in water (mg/L).
Q67. Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only. Gold mining causes deforestation, water contamination, and releases large amounts of mercury. Mercury is also emitted from coal combustion in thermal power plants. So, Statement I and II are correct.
Q68. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Power plants using fossil fuels are the largest source of SO₂ emissions.
Q69. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Chewing gum is made from synthetic, non-biodegradable gum base that persists in the environment, making its residue a harmful pollutant. Answer : (d) Explanation : Per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are highly persistent synthetic compounds found in drinking water, air, soil, and fish globally. Their strong carbon-fluoride bonds make them extremely resistant to breakdown, causing long-term environmental and health concerns.
Q70. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q71. Uranium Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2, 4 and 5 only. Gold mining causes deforestation, water contamination, and releases large amounts of mercury. Mercury is also emitted from coal combustion in thermal power plants. So, Statement I and II are correct.
Q72. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight. Photochemical smog forms in warm, sunny climates due to sunlight acting on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons from vehicles and industries. It contains ozone, NO₂, PAN, acrolein, and formaldehyde.
4. Biodiversity
Q73. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q74. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q75. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q76. Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Marsupials are not naturally found in India, as their evolution and distribution are primarily linked to Australia and South America. They thrive in diverse ecosystems and are not limited to montane grasslands.
Q77. Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: (2025) I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) II and III. Peacock tarantula is an arachnid and carnivorous, not a crustacean or omnivore. It is Critically Endangered, found only in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh. It is an arboreal species, living in tree hollows and crevices.
Q78. Consider the following pairs: (2025) Plant : Description I. Cassava : Woody shrub II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber IV. Mint : Annual shrub V. Papaya : Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Only four. Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while Pairs 4 and 5 are incorrect as mint is a herbaceous perennial, not an annual shrub, and papaya is a giant herbaceous plant, not a true shrub.
Q79. The organisms ‘’Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are: (2024)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Insects. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q80. Madagascar Bonobo How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q81. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only Insect that can pollinate this tree? (2024)
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q82. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q83. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Honey Bees. Honeybees use a complex “waggle dance” to communicate the direction, distance, and quality of resources like food or water to other bees.
Q84. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) All four. Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are found in North America and Central Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
Q85. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q86. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Orangutan. This choice matches the concept tested under Biodiversity; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q87. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 2. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q88. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Golden Mahseer. This choice matches the concept tested under Biodiversity; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q89. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q90. Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Oyster. This choice matches the concept tested under Biodiversity; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q91. Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Lemon grass. Lemongrass (Cymbopogon citratus) is a tropical herb known for its lemony aroma. It also serves as a natural mosquito repellent.
Q92. With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Birds. Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Grey-chinned minivet, and White-throated redstart are all bird species.
Q93. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 3, and 4 only 122 Biodiversity. Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are found in North America and Central Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
Q94. Rusty Spotted Cat Eastern Ghats Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q95. Some species of snakes are viviparous. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are found in North America and Central Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
Q96. One-horned rhinoceros are naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q97. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of (2018)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Mankind's overexploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution, and global climate change.. The sixth mass extinction is linked to overexploitation, habitat loss, pollution, ecosystem degradation, and climate change, endangering key ecosystem services like pollination and water regulation.
Q98. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? (2017)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Chambal River. Gharials are limited to parts of India and Nepal, primarily in rivers like the Chambal, Gandak, Girwa, Son, Ramganga, and Mahanadi.
Q99. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? (2016)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Western Ghats. The Western Ghats are home to four hornbill species—Great Indian Hornbill, Malabar Pied Hornbill, Common Grey Hornbill, and Malabar Grey Hornbill.
Q100. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q101. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Gangetic dolphin. The Ganges River Dolphin is the national aquatic animal of India and a symbol of the purity of the Ganga.
Q102. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q103. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q104. Use of synthetic fertilisers and other agricultural chemicals in crop fields in the vicinity of rivers. 123 Biodiversity Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are found in North America and Central Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
Q105. Black-necked Crane Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q106. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context? (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas. Cluster bean (Guar) produces guar gum, a natural thickening agent derived from the seeds of the plant. Guar gum is extensively used in hydraulic fracturing (fracking) for shale gas extraction. It serves as a viscosity modifier in fracking fluids, helping to carry proppants (like sand) into underground fractures.
Q107. Swamp deer Which of the above is/are endangered?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 2 and 3. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q108. Spider monkey Which of the above are naturally found in India?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are found in North America and Central Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
Q109. Sea lion Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2 and 3 only. Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are all insects.
Q110. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 124. Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk are found in North America and Central Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobos are native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
5. Global Conservation Efforts
Q111. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. All three statements are correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement enables voluntary international cooperation on climate action, including carbon markets through ITMOs and SDM, and also promotes non-market approaches like capacity building and technology transfer under Article 6.8. Answer : (a) Explanation: At COP28 in 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub to mobilize $2 billion for nature-based solutions.
Q112. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. The Common Carbon Metric (CCM), supported by the UN Environment Programme, provides a standardized method to measure, report, and verify GHG emissions from building operations.
Q113. India was one of the signatories at its inception. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 2 and 4. The Common Carbon Metric (CCM), supported by the UN Environment Programme, provides a standardized method to measure, report, and verify GHG emissions from building operations.
Q114. 'R2 Code of Practices’ constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry. Responsible Recycling (R2) is a standard developed by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI) for the electronics recycling industry, with the latest Code of Practices
Q115. Consider the following statements: (2025) Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the Declaration on Climate and Health. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration. Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its healthcare system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q116. Consider the following statements: (2025) Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. All three statements are correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement enables voluntary international cooperation on climate action, including carbon markets through ITMOs and SDM, and also promotes non-market approaches like capacity building and technology transfer under Article 6.8. Answer : (a) Explanation: At COP28 in 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub to mobilize $2 billion for nature-based solutions.
Q117. Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’? (2025)
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q118. Consider the following statements: (2021) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World. Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Hyderabad is the only Indian city recognized as a ‘Tree City of the World’ by the Arbor Day Foundation and FAO, for meeting five international standards on urban forestry. Global Conservation Efforts- Explanation 5 131 Global Conservation Efforts-Explanation making using structured valuation approaches.
Q119. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q120. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at (2018)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched at the Rio+20 Summit (2012) to help countries transition to green and inclusive economies.
Q121. "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by (2018)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative of the UNFCCC Secretariat, launched in 2015.
Q122. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q123. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon, and hydrofluorocarbons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. All three statements are correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement enables voluntary international cooperation on climate action, including carbon markets through ITMOs and SDM, and also promotes non-market approaches like capacity building and technology transfer under Article 6.8. Answer : (a) Explanation: At COP28 in 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub to mobilize $2 billion for nature-based solutions.
Q124. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. All three statements are correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement enables voluntary international cooperation on climate action, including carbon markets through ITMOs and SDM, and also promotes non-market approaches like capacity building and technology transfer under Article 6.8. Answer : (a) Explanation: At COP28 in 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub to mobilize $2 billion for nature-based solutions.
Q125. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identifies GIAHS. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q126. It presents an approach that can help decision makers recognize, demonstrate, and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q127. Poverty reduction Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q128. It is committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q129. It identifies the sites known/referred to as 'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas'. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q130. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances? (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Montreal Protocol. This choice matches the concept tested under Global Conservation Efforts; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q131. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Conventional does not take the place of national laws. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q132. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply? (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.. The Montreux Record, established in 1990, is a register under the Ramsar Convention of wetlands where ecological character has changed or is at risk due to human interference, and is used to prioritize conservation efforts.
Q133. With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) It serves as a financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'.. The Global Environment Facility (GEF), established in 1992, is a financial mechanism supporting developing countries with grants for global environmental projects and serves key conventions like the CBD and UNFCCC.
Q134. It works at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge 129 Global Conservation Efforts and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. All three statements are correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement enables voluntary international cooperation on climate action, including carbon markets through ITMOs and SDM, and also promotes non-market approaches like capacity building and technology transfer under Article 6.8. Answer : (a) Explanation: At COP28 in 2023, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub to mobilize $2 billion for nature-based solutions.
Q135. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q136. The World Heritage Convention. Which of the above has/have a bearing on biodiversity?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
6. National Conservation Efforts
Q137. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.. Schedule VI lists protected plant species. Their cultivation, possession, sale, and transport require prior permission, making licensing mandatory.
Q138. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2 only. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q139. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 provide criteria for landfill and waste processing site selection, with special provisions for hilly areas, avoiding landfill construction and using transfer stations.
Q140. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. Governance of Community reserves shifts from local bodies like gram panchayats or municipalities to the forest department. Hunting and agriculture are prohibited, but collection of non- timber forest produce is allowed. The main aim of community reserves is wildlife and biodiversity conservation, not traditional agriculture, which is generally not permitted.
Q141. Consider the following statements: (2024) Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q142. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. Only hunted wild animals are considered state property. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. The Chief Wildlife Warden may permit hunting of Schedule I animals only if they pose a danger to human life or are incurably ill or disabled, with written justification.
Q143. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Central Ground Water Authority. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q144. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 only. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q145. Odisha With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2-3-4-1. Only hunted wild animals are considered state property. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. The Chief Wildlife Warden may permit hunting of Schedule I animals only if they pose a danger to human life or are incurably ill or disabled, with written justification.
Q146. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. Governance of Community reserves shifts from local bodies like gram panchayats or municipalities to the forest department. Hunting and agriculture are prohibited, but collection of non- timber forest produce is allowed. The main aim of community reserves is wildlife and biodiversity conservation, not traditional agriculture, which is generally not permitted.
Q147. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) The e -Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an significant feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
Q148. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. Governance of Community reserves shifts from local bodies like gram panchayats or municipalities to the forest department. Hunting and agriculture are prohibited, but collection of non- timber forest produce is allowed. The main aim of community reserves is wildlife and biodiversity conservation, not traditional agriculture, which is generally not permitted.
Q149. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 only. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q150. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves. M-STrIPES (Monitoring System for Tigers-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) uses GPS, GPRS, remote sensing, and IT tools for patrolling, ecological monitoring, and managing human- wildlife conflict in tiger reserves.
Q151. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? (2017)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, it denotes it enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. No person can hunt that species except as provided by Law.
Q152. Wild buffalo Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q153. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. Governance of Community reserves shifts from local bodies like gram panchayats or municipalities to the forest department. Hunting and agriculture are prohibited, but collection of non- timber forest produce is allowed. The main aim of community reserves is wildlife and biodiversity conservation, not traditional agriculture, which is generally not permitted.
Q154. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to (2016)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Protection of Western Ghats. Both Gadgil and Kasturirangan Committee Reports focus on Western Ghats conservation.
Q155. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body under the 1989 Rules framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q156. It organises and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2 and 3 only. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q157. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Biosphere Reserves. This choice matches the concept tested under National Conservation Efforts; the other alternatives do not satisfy the wording of the item.
Q158. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2 only. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Q159. The purpose of the declaration of Eco Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. Governance of Community reserves shifts from local bodies like gram panchayats or municipalities to the forest department. Hunting and agriculture are prohibited, but collection of non- timber forest produce is allowed. The main aim of community reserves is wildlife and biodiversity conservation, not traditional agriculture, which is generally not permitted.
7. Climate Change: Causes and Implications
Q160. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5. The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) measures the economic harm (in dollar value) caused by emitting one ton of CO₂ in a given year.
Q161. Which one of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? (2020) It is a measure, in monetary value, of the
Explanation: Correct option: (a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.. The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) measures the economic harm (in dollar value) caused by emitting one ton of CO₂ in a given year.
Q162. Methane in the atmosphere oxidised to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q163. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Reducing global warming.. Cirrus clouds, found at 6–18 km altitude, trap atmospheric heat. Thinning these clouds reduces their heat-retention, helping cool the Earth’s climate.
Q164. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) II and III only. India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are around 1.8–2.0 tonnes, not below 0.5 tonnes. India is the second-highest CO₂ emitter in the Asia-Pacific after China. The largest CO₂ emissions in India come from electricity and heat production.
Q165. Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Carbon markets allow buying and selling of carbon credits, creating financial incentives to reduce emissions by pricing carbon. Carbon markets involve financial transactions between entities in the private sector.
Q166. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Database created by coalition of research organisations. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q167. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q168. Subterranean deep saline formations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q169. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2016)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change. Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) are central to the Paris Agreement, representing each country’s commitment to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate change.
Q170. Clean Development Mechanisms: Kyoto Protocol Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q171. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q172. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (2016)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions.. The Greenhouse Gas Protocol provides global standardized frameworks for measuring and managing GHG emissions across public and private sectors.
Q173. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 3 only. The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks national climate actions against the Paris Agreement goals.
Q174. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2 only. y The Climate Group is an international non-profit driving climate action via global networks. y RE100 (not E100) is the global initiative for 100% renewable electricity. y EP100 promotes corporate energy efficiency y Some indian companies like Mahindra & Mahindra are part of E100. y The Climate Group is the secretariat (not governing body) of the Under2 Coalition, which includes 260+ governments.
Q175. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. Carbon markets allow buying and selling of carbon credits, creating financial incentives to reduce emissions by pricing carbon. Carbon markets involve financial transactions between entities in the private sector.
8. Environment, Sustainable Development and General Issues
Q176. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only. Biofuels are produced from sugar-based crops (e.g., sugarcane, beet), starch-based crops (e.g., corn, cassava, algae), and cellulosic materials (e.g., bagasse, wood waste, agricultural residues like rice straw, damaged grains, etc.).
Q177. Portland cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Greenwashing denotes the deceptive practice of giving a false or misleading impression about how environmentally friendly a company’s products or operations are.
Q178. Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, and also powers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
Q179. Consider the following statements: (2024) Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act, and EU’s commitment to carbon neutrality by 2040 supports Statement I.
Q180. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Only three. Sprinkling powdered basalt on ecosystems enhances soil and removes CO₂ via mineral weathering. Ocean alkalinization adds alkaline materials (like olivine or lime) to seawater, increasing CO₂ absorption by forming stable carbonate compounds. Deep geological injection involves pumping CO₂ into underground formations through wells for long-term storage.
Q181. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, and also powers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
Q182. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, and also powers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
Q183. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 4 only. Sprinkling powdered basalt on ecosystems enhances soil and removes CO₂ via mineral weathering. Ocean alkalinization adds alkaline materials (like olivine or lime) to seawater, increasing CO₂ absorption by forming stable carbonate compounds. Deep geological injection involves pumping CO₂ into underground formations through wells for long-term storage.
Q184. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large-scale facilities, which may raise ecological and social concerns. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 only. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, and also powers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
Q185. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q186. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Both 1 and 2. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are synthetic compounds widely used in various industries. They serve as aerosol propellants, foam blowing agents, and fire retardants due to their chemical stability and non-flammable nature.
Q187. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only and does not contain any toxic elements. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, and also powers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
Q188. What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news? (2015)
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q189. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel in internal combustion engines, blended with natural gas for heating or power generation, and also powers hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
9. Agriculture
Q190. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q191. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q192. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1, 2 and 4. Biofilters in aquaponics systems play a crucial role in water treatment by removing organic waste and converting toxic ammonia into safer nitrate through nitrification. However, phosphorus management is handled separately through feed control and water quality monitoring, not by biofilters.
Q193. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q194. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Sugarcane. Agriculture-Explanation 9 149 Agriculture-Explanation issues, and developmental defects.
Q195. Consider the following statements: (2025) Statement I : Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct. The United States, not Brazil, is the world’s largest ethanol producer due to large-scale corn-based ethanol production. The USA uses corn for ethanol, while Brazil relies on sugarcane, which offers better yield and lower emissions. Answer : (a) The “100 Million Farmers” initiative is a multi-stakeholder platform aimed at transitioning to net-zero, nature-positive food systems by 2030.
Q196. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”? (2024)
Explanation: This item was not linked to a dependable official key during extraction, so the quiz does not force one marked answer for it.
Q197. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q198. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR's research centres. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q199. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q200. Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 3 only. Biofilters in aquaponics systems play a crucial role in water treatment by removing organic waste and converting toxic ammonia into safer nitrate through nitrification. However, phosphorus management is handled separately through feed control and water quality monitoring, not by biofilters.
Q201. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q202. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only. Biofilters in aquaponics systems play a crucial role in water treatment by removing organic waste and converting toxic ammonia into safer nitrate through nitrification. However, phosphorus management is handled separately through feed control and water quality monitoring, not by biofilters.
Q203. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 3 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q204. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only. The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) emphasizes planting young seedlings singly with wider spacing, using organic manure, and practicing intermittent irrigation along with active soil aeration. It reduces seed, water, and electricity use, and significantly cuts methane emissions compared to conventional rice farming.
Q205. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 3 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q206. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
Q207. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only. Biofilters in aquaponics systems play a crucial role in water treatment by removing organic waste and converting toxic ammonia into safer nitrate through nitrification. However, phosphorus management is handled separately through feed control and water quality monitoring, not by biofilters.
Q208. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. y Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) is an evergreen tree, while Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous. y Jackfruit is typically found in wet evergreen forests along the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the northeastern region. Mahua is native to arid and semi-arid regions. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree commonly found in mixed deciduous forests and is prized for its durable timber.
UPSC Prelims 2026 Additions
Q209. With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025. 2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park. 3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q22. Statement 1 is correct: Madhav National Park is situated near Shivpuri town and is a part of the upper Vindhyan hills. The Park was the hunting ground of Mughal emperors and Maharaja of Gwalior. It got the status of a National Park in 1958.
Q210. Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid): 1. It is an epiphytic orchid. 2. The species is endemic to North-east India. 3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 3. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q26. Statement 1 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa is commonly known as the “fox- tail orchid,” since the pendant inflorescence looks like a fox's tail.
Q211. At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation". Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q28. Option (b) is the correct answer: FAO's extensive involvement at UNOC 2025 underscored its vision for a "Blue Transformation," positioning aquatic food systems as pivotal for achieving the Four Betters: better production, better nutrition, a better environment, and a better life – leaving no one behind. Upon paying closer attention to the options, one can figure out there is a scope for option elimination.
Q212. Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q30. "REDD+ is a framework developed under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to support efforts aimed at reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation while promoting sustainable forest management and conservation.
Q213. Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change: I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070. II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019. III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets. Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct? 1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II. 2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I. 3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q31. India submitted its Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT- LEDS) at the COP27 held in Sharm El Sheikh in 2022 under the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change and the Paris Agreement. It is a long-term roadmap prepared by countries to: achieve climate goals, pursue economic development, reduce greenhouse gas emissions over time, align with the Paris Agreement temperature goals.
Q214. With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Sanctuary in North- east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List. 2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees. 3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q32. Statement 1 is correct: The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India's only ape and gibbon species. A large majority of population of gibbons in India belong to the Western species. The western Hoolock Gibbon's IUCN status is Endangered.
Q215. Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience? 1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts. 2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. 3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio- shields and livelihood bases for rural communities. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q33. Statement 1 is not correct: Mangroves themselves are not ideal sites for normal paddy cultivation because mangrove ecosystems are: highly saline, waterlogged, tidal, low in oxygen, and ecologically fragile.
Q216. Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct? 1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds. 2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites. 3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q37. Statement 1 is correct: Amur falcons have been coming to Doyang valley for a long time. They even have a local name, eninum, which in the Lotha language denotes “mysterious creatures”. In Nagaland’s Pangti village, hunters turned protectors after realising the worth of conserving the remarkable Amur falcon.
Q217. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)? 1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas 2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions 3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q38. The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) component has been implemented under the NMSA since 2014-15. It aims to promote sustainable agricultural production through agro-climatic zone-specific Integrated Farming System (IFS) models developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Statement 1 is not correct: The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) programme promotes diversified farming systems, not monoculture.
Q218. Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct? 1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata. 2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi. 3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q42. Statement 1 is correct: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has established many Institutions for survey and monitoring as well as research. To take benefit of their synergy in terms of facilities and manpower along with filling the gaps therein, a need was felt to review and revisit the existing institutional arrangements.
Q219. Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct? 1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level. 2. It was developed by IIT Delhi. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q49. Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) or Bharat Forecasting System is an Indian high-resolution weather prediction system, launched by the Government of India on 26 May 2025. It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. The BharatFS was developed with the objective of generating forecasts at the cluster of panchayats level and improving the prediction of extremes.
Q220. Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct? 1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy. 3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q70. Statement 1 is not correct: In blue hydrogen, the “raw material” is natural gas (primarily methane). When this gas is processed, two things are produced: Hydrogen → useful clean fuel Carbon dioxide (CO₂) → greenhouse gas Now normally, this CO₂ would go into the atmosphere. But in blue hydrogen, we catch the CO₂ and store it underground using a method called Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS).