UPSC Prelims 2013–2026 — Indian Polity & Governance

Q1. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (2021)

Q2. Constitutional government means (2021)

Q3. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019)

Q4. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty? (2018)

Q5. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Q6. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub- judice. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q7. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q8. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q9. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)

Q10. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (2017)

Q11. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q12. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? (2024)

Q13. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? (2024)

Q14. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean? (2023)

Q15. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country? (2023)

Q16. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q17. Consider the following pairs: (2025) Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q18. Consider the following statements: (2025) With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q19. Consider the following pairs: (2025) State : Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act III. Tripura : Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q20. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ? (2022)

Q21. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates (2021)

Q22. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021)

Q23. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (2021)

Q24. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Q25. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’? (2021)

Q26. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (2021)

Q27. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Q28. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021)

Q29. A Constitutional government by definition is a (2020)

Q30. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q31. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (2020)

Q32. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State? (2020)

Q33. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q34. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (2020)

Q35. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is (2020)

Q36. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q37. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void? (2019)

Q38. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of: (2019)

Q39. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? (2019)

Q40. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)

Q41. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q42. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (2017)

Q43. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q44. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017)

Q45. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties? (2017)

Q46. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of (2017)

Q47. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (2017)

Q48. executive function. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Q49. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2017)

Q50. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its (2015)

Q51. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the (2015)

Q52. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (2015)

Q53. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q54. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q55. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the: (2014)

Q56. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of Indian Constitution has been provided in (2013)

Q57. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? (2013)

Q58. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/ her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q59. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q60. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q61. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: (2025) I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor’s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Q62. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of The House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q63. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q64. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q65. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023. (2024)

Q66. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q67. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q68. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q69. Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q70. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q71. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the 164 Legislature appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Q72. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Q73. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Q74. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Q75. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (2020)

Q76. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which (2020)

Q77. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q78. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in (2020)

Q79. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q80. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the leader of opposition. Which of the following statements given is/are correct? 165 Legislature

Q81. The validity of law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no Judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q82. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinises and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by- laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executives within the scope of such delegation? (2018)

Q83. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

Q84. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)

Q85. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q86. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q87. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (2017)

Q88. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q89. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by (2017)

Q90. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q91. The Parliament of India acquires the powers to legislate on any items in the State List in the national interest if the resolution to that effect has been passed by the (2016)

Q92. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015)

Q93. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q94. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by (2015)

Q95. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q96. Which one of the Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the anti-defection? (2014)

Q97. Which of the following committees is the largest Committee of the Parliament? (2014)

Q98. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q99. Examine the report of CAG. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q100. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q101. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the 167 Legislature Parliament have no voting right in the Presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q102. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (2013)

Q103. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q104. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties (2013)

Q105. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q106. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?

Q107. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Q108. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: (2025) I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q109. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q110. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: (2025) I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q111. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: (2025) I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q112. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q113. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q114. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)

Q115. The value of vote of MPs in Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q116. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q117. If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution in respect of a particular state, then (2018)

Q118. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q119. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q120. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q121. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q122. Allocations of financial resources to the Ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q123. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Select the answers using the codes given below:

Q124. All executive actions of the government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q125. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Select the correct answer using the given code below:

Q126. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2013)

Q127. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Q128. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Q129. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q130. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Q131. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to: (2024)

Q132. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? (2023)

Q133. Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q134. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Q135. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Q136. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by (2020)

Q137. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q138. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q139. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (2019)

Q140. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q141. In India, Judicial Review implies (2017)

Q142. Who/which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India? (2015)

Q143. The power to increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in (2014)

Q144. The power of Supreme Court of India to decide dispute between the centre and states fall under its: (2014)

Q145. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Q146. Financial mobilisation Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q147. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (2013)

Q148. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? (2013)

Q149. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

Q150. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q151. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (2017)

Q152. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q153. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Q154. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q155. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)

Q156. Consider the following statements: (2025) Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q157. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q158. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Q159. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q160. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q161. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/ mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q162. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q163. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q164. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Q165. Consider the following statements about Lokpal: (2025) I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q166. With reference to India, consider the following: (2025) I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Q167. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

Q168. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q169. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q170. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q171. All Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q172. Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions? (2026)

Q173. In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above: 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. 3. Creating a multi- stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process? (2026)

Q174. Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity 3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)

Q175. X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below: (2026)

Q176. Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India: 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (2026)

Q177. Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct? 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non- discrimination. 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology. 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)

Q178. Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India: 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (2026)

Q179. Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India: 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (2026)

Q180. Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India: 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct? (2026)

Q181. Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non- cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)

Q182. With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details: Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry 1 | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs 2 | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance (MCA) 3 | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched? (2026)

Q183. Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct? 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)