UPSC Prelims 2013–2026 — Science & Technology and Basic Science
1. Biotechnology
Q1. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of: (2024)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies. Choice (d) is the right one: The membrane bioreactor (MBR) has emerged as an efficient compact technology for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment.
Q2. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go. Aerial metagenomics involves collecting and analyzing DNA from air samples to study airborne microbial diversity. It uses air samplers to capture microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, and fungi, followed by DNA extraction and sequencing.
Q3. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q4. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q5. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens.. T cells and B cells, part of adaptive immunity, originate in bone marrow. B cells mature there, while T cells mature in the thymus; both are critical for targeted immune responses.
Q6. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q7. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q8. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Aerial metagenomics involves collecting and analyzing DNA from air samples to study airborne microbial diversity. It uses air samplers to capture microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, and fungi, followed by DNA extraction and sequencing.
Q9. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Aerial metagenomics involves collecting and analyzing DNA from air samples to study airborne microbial diversity. It uses air samplers to capture microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, and fungi, followed by DNA extraction and sequencing.
Q10. Virus Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q11. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring. Pronuclear transfer involves moving the pronuclei between zygotes before genetic fusion, offering a way to prevent mitochondrial diseases. Since mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited, this technique helps eliminate faulty mtDNA.
Q12. What is the Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.. CRISPR-Cas9 edits genes precisely using a guide RNA that directs the Cas9 enzyme to cut target DNA. The cell then repairs the break, enabling insertion, deletion, or modification of genes.
Q13. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Covishield, used in India, is a viral vector vaccine, not mRNA- based. Sputnik V also uses a viral vector, while Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine designed to stimulate immune response by using killed pathogens.
Q14. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.. DNA is the hereditary material organized into chromosomes by coiling around histone proteins. While DNA segments can be Biotechnology-Explanation 1 284 Biotechnology-Explanation combined between species, functional chromosomes cannot be created this way—such combinations often cause abnormalities.
Q15. The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) spread of viral diseases. Coronaviruses have a fatty envelope and spike proteins that bind to the ACE2 receptor on human cells to enter and replicate. SARS- CoV uses the same mechanism, and treatments aim to block the virus at various stages of this entry and replication process.
Q16. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Aerial metagenomics involves collecting and analyzing DNA from air samples to study airborne microbial diversity. It uses air samplers to capture microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, and fungi, followed by DNA extraction and sequencing.
Q17. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) developing genetically modified crop plants. Bollgard I (2002) and Bollgard II (2006) are genetically modified Bt cotton varieties approved in India. They use genes from Bacillus thuringiensis to protect cotton against pests like the American bollworm.
Q18. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q19. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q20. Gene silencing Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q21. Resist disease infestation Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q22. from microorganisms to higher organisms Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q23. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? (2017)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Reproductive cloning of animals. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) involves inserting a somatic cell nucleus into an enucleated egg to create clones. The technique enabled the cloning of monkeys and advanced stem cell therapy by overcoming epigenetic barriers.
Q24. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Microsatellite DNA (SSRs) are short, repetitive sequences that vary in length among individuals. These variations help assess genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population structure in fauna.
Q25. In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (2016)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism. The transcriptome is the full range of mRNA molecules expressed in an organism and changes with development or environmental conditions. Unlike the stable genome, the transcriptome is dynamic and reflects gene activity.
2. Defence Technology
Q26. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: (2025) I. All types of UAVs can do vertical Landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) None. • Statement I is incorrect: Not all UAVs can perform vertical landing. VTOL is primarily possible with rotor-based UAVs like multirotor drones. Traditional fixed-wing UAVs need runways or catapults. • Statement II is incorrect: Not all UAVs can hover automatically. Fixed-wing UAVs lack hovering ability, unlike multirotor UAVs which can hover and perform VTOL. • Statement III is incorrect: Not all UAVs rely only on batteries.
Q27. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media (2025)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) These are explosives in military weapons. CL-20: A high-density ( >2 g/cm³) polycyclic nitroamine explosive with a detonation velocity of 9400 m/s. Used as a booster in military applications and considered for solid rocket motors. HMX: A colorless, crystalline solid with low shock sensitivity. Used in nuclear weapons, plastic explosives, rocket fuels, and burster chargers.
Q28. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs: Aircraft type : Description I. Dornier 228 : Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-7 : Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globe-master III : Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. • I is correctly matched. Dornier 228 is a maritime patrol aircraft. It’s a versatile twin-engine turboprop aircraft used by the Indian Coast Guard, Indian Navy, and Air Force. • II is incorrect. Ilyushin Il-76 is not a supersonic combat aircraft.
Q29. The Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 2, 3 and 4. Statement 1 is not correct: because Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military Exercise between India and Sri Lanka. Statement 2 is correct: The ninth edition of the Joint Military exercise “Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023” commenced today in Aundh (Pune). Statement 3 is correct: The goal of the exercise includes synergising joint responses during counter-terrorist operations.
Q30. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth Generation fighter aircraft?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. • I is correctly matched. Dornier 228 is a maritime patrol aircraft. It’s a versatile twin-engine turboprop aircraft used by the Indian Coast Guard, Indian Navy, and Air Force. • II is incorrect. Ilyushin Il-76 is not a supersonic combat aircraft.
Q31. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. CL-20: A high-density ( >2 g/cm³) polycyclic nitroamine explosive with a detonation velocity of 9400 m/s. Used as a booster in military applications and considered for solid rocket motors. HMX: A colorless, crystalline solid with low shock sensitivity. Used in nuclear weapons, plastic explosives, rocket fuels, and burster chargers.
Q32. Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attacks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 only. CL-20: A high-density ( >2 g/cm³) polycyclic nitroamine explosive with a detonation velocity of 9400 m/s. Used as a booster in military applications and considered for solid rocket motors. HMX: A colorless, crystalline solid with low shock sensitivity. Used in nuclear weapons, plastic explosives, rocket fuels, and burster chargers.
Q33. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. • I is correctly matched. Dornier 228 is a maritime patrol aircraft. It’s a versatile twin-engine turboprop aircraft used by the Indian Coast Guard, Indian Navy, and Air Force. • II is incorrect. Ilyushin Il-76 is not a supersonic combat aircraft.
3. Space Science
Q34. Consider the following statements: (2025) Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I. • Statement I is correct: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. • Statement II is correct: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. • Statement III is correct: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Q35. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? (2025) I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (d) I and II only. Statement I and II are correct, Statement III is incorrect
Q36. Consider the following space missions: (2025) I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All the three. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q37. Consider the following statements: (2024) Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. Statement I is incorrect: giant stars, though more massive, consume fuel faster and live shorter lives than dwarf stars. Statement II is correct: red dwarfs burn hydrogen more slowly and live trillions of years—far exceeding sun-like stars.
Q38. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All three. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q39. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in the media? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.. FOBS (Fractional Orbital Bombardment System), developed by the USSR, places nuclear warheads in low-Earth orbit, deorbiting them over targets. In 2021, the U.S. confirmed China’s testing of such technology.
Q40. The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Evolved LISA. eLISA is a space-based observatory with spacecraft 1 million km apart to detect low-frequency gravitational waves. Its design allows for measurements impossible on Earth, helping study black holes, cosmology, and General Relativity.
Q41. Land surface temperature of a specific location. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q42. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 2 and 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q43. AstroSat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Neither 1 nor 2. Statement I and II are correct, Statement III is incorrect
Q44. made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q45. Traffic studies Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only. Cepheids are pulsating variable stars used to measure distances, not fixed bright stars.Nebulae are gas and dust clouds, not bright stars. Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars emitting beams of radiation, like a lighthouse.
Q46. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of (2015)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space. TOI 700 d is an Earth-sized exoplanet discovered by NASA’s TESS mission in the habitable zone of its star, meaning conditions might allow liquid water. It orbits an M dwarf star every 37 days and receives 86% of the solar energy Earth receives, making it a strong candidate for further study.
Q47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.. Black holes are regions of extreme gravity where not even light escapes. Gravitational waves detected by LIGO and VIRGO confirm black hole mergers; 10 such events and one neutron star merger have been observed.
Q48. Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q49. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the predictions/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in the media?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q50. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 2 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q51. It is buried deep in the ice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
Q52. Voyager 1 and 2 Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. All listed missions promote microgravity research. Axiom-4 will carry an Indian astronaut to the ISS for microgravity experiments; SpaDeX studied plant growth in microgravity; and Gaganyaan offers a platform for scientific experiments during human spaceflight.
4. Communication Technology
Q53. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) I and III only. Microsoft’s Majorana 1 chip, based on a new state of matter called a topoconductor, is aimed at advancing scalable quantum computing. Deep learning, a subset of machine learning, uses artificial neural networks for predictive tasks, while AWS was not involved in introducing the chip.
Q54. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D Virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”? (2024)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Metaverse. The Metaverse denotes an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds, not a singular platform owned by Meta. It allows users to interact, socialize, and own virtual assets such as land and items.
Q55. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q56. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Japan. It complements global systems like GPS through its unique geosynchronous and inclined orbits.
Q57. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/ technologies ?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q58. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q59. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q60. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Quantum Computing. A qubit, or quantum bit, is the fundamental unit of quantum computing, analogous to a classical bit. Unlike classical bits that are either 0 or 1, qubits can exist in superpositions of both states, enabling powerful parallel computations. Communication Technology- Explanation 4
Q61. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms ?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Japan’s Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) enhances satellite navigation accuracy in Japan and nearby regions, especially in urban areas. It complements global systems like GPS through its unique geosynchronous and inclined orbits.
Q62. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Digital security infrastructure. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) secures digital communications through encryption, digital certificates, and cryptographic key pairs. It ensures confidentiality, data integrity, and non-repudiation by integrating certification authorities and public/private key cryptography.
Q63. VLC has no electromagnetic interference Communication Technology 4 293 Communication Technology
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 4 only. Japan’s Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) enhances satellite navigation accuracy in Japan and nearby regions, especially in urban areas. It complements global systems like GPS through its unique geosynchronous and inclined orbits.
Q64. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Both 1 and 2. The Metaverse denotes an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds, not a singular platform owned by Meta. It allows users to interact, socialize, and own virtual assets such as land and items.
Q65. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly. (2018) In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario? (2018)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Internet of Things. The Internet of Things (IoT) connects physical devices—like appliances and vehicles—via the internet, enabling data exchange and automation. It integrates sensors, software, and networks, boosting efficiency, reducing human intervention, and driving smarter environments.
Q66. It is wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘WiFi’. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Both 1 and 2. The Metaverse denotes an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds, not a singular platform owned by Meta. It allows users to interact, socialize, and own virtual assets such as land and items.
Q67. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q68. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q69. Assisting the hearing-impaired person. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q70. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
Q71. Voice recognition Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect: X-ray machines and metal detectors are used at airports and not radar based detectors. Statement 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used for monitoring of precipitation. Statement 3 is correct: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals.
5. Energy
Q72. Consider the following types of vehicles: (2025) I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All the three. Hybrid, electric, and hydrogen fuel cell vehicles are all considered alternative powertrain vehicles because they differ from traditional internal combustion engines. These technologies reduce reliance on fossil fuels and support cleaner transportation.
Q73. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 3 and 4 only. Fuel cell vehicles run on compressed hydrogen gas that reacts in fuel cells to produce electricity, emitting only water as a by-product. They offer a clean and efficient alternative to conventional engines, with zero tailpipe emissions.
Q74. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. RTGs are compact power systems that generate electricity from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, without a nuclear chain reaction. Used in spacecraft like Cassini, RTGs differ from nuclear reactors and are reliable for long missions where solar power isn’t feasible.
Q75. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen? (2024)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Water vapour. Fuel cell vehicles run on compressed hydrogen gas that reacts in fuel cells to produce electricity, emitting only water as a by-product. They offer a clean and efficient alternative to conventional engines, with zero tailpipe emissions.
Q76. Recently, the term”pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following? (2024)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Long duration energy storage. Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH) operates like a large battery, using two water reservoirs at different elevations to store and generate electricity. Water is released to generate power and later pumped back up for reuse, helping balance electricity supply and demand. Energy-Explanation 5 6.
Q77. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) All four. Fuel cell vehicles run on compressed hydrogen gas that reacts in fuel cells to produce electricity, emitting only water as a by-product. They offer a clean and efficient alternative to conventional engines, with zero tailpipe emissions.
Q78. India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India? (2016)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation. ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is a global collaboration aiming to build the world’s largest fusion reactor (tokamak). It seeks to demonstrate the feasibility of nuclear fusion as a clean, safe, and limitless energy source similar to the Sun.
Q79. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. RTGs are compact power systems that generate electricity from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, without a nuclear chain reaction. Used in spacecraft like Cassini, RTGs differ from nuclear reactors and are reliable for long missions where solar power isn’t feasible.
Q80. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal Technology but not for photovoltaics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. RTGs are compact power systems that generate electricity from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, without a nuclear chain reaction. Used in spacecraft like Cassini, RTGs differ from nuclear reactors and are reliable for long missions where solar power isn’t feasible.
6. Miscellaneous
Q81. With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’ an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2025) I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) I, II and III. Statement I is correct: It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. • Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from ambient air using chemical processes. • The captured CO₂ can then be permanently stored underground (geological sequestration) or used in various applications, making it an effective method of carbon sequestration. • This supports reducing atmospheric CO₂ concentrations and mitigating climate.
Q82. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028. II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) I and II only. The National Rail Plan targets readiness by 2030, not 2028, and Kavach is an indigenous safety system developed without foreign help. Kavach uses RFID tags to track train positions, making only Statement 3 correct. Miscellaneous-Explanation 6
Q83. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 2 and 3. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q84. Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Polycarbonate. Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical used in polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins, commonly found in water bottles, food containers, and the lining of canned foods. It can leach into food and beverages, raising health concerns over time.
Q85. ‘Triclosan’, consider harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Toiletries. Triclosan is an antimicrobial agent used in products like soaps, toothpaste, cosmetics, and even paints. It helps prevent microbial contamination and increases shelf life but can cause skin irritation and raise safety concerns with prolonged use.
Q86. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. The National Rail Plan targets readiness by 2030, not 2028, and Kavach is an indigenous safety system developed without foreign help. Kavach uses RFID tags to track train positions, making only Statement 3 correct. Miscellaneous-Explanation 6
Q87. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only. Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical used in polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins, commonly found in water bottles, food containers, and the lining of canned foods. It can leach into food and beverages, raising health concerns over time.
Q88. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q89. Wireless transmission of electrical energy. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Triclosan is an antimicrobial agent used in products like soaps, toothpaste, cosmetics, and even paints. It helps prevent microbial contamination and increases shelf life but can cause skin irritation and raise safety concerns with prolonged use.
Q90. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) None of the above statements is correct. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q91. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. The National Rail Plan targets readiness by 2030, not 2028, and Kavach is an indigenous safety system developed without foreign help. Kavach uses RFID tags to track train positions, making only Statement 3 correct. Miscellaneous-Explanation 6
Q92. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) fossil of a kind of dinosaur. (b) an early human species. (c) a cave system found in North-East India. (d) a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent.. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q93. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q94. Data processing technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Triclosan is an antimicrobial agent used in products like soaps, toothpaste, cosmetics, and even paints. It helps prevent microbial contamination and increases shelf life but can cause skin irritation and raise safety concerns with prolonged use.
Q95. CRISPR-Cas9 Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2 and 3. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q96. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamate Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 1, 2 and 3 301. Nanoparticles occur in nature, as seen in sulfur or selenium particles from bacteria, contradicting Statement 1. Titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are commonly used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and due to their small size, some nanoparticles can penetrate cells and be harmful. therefore, Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
7. Physics
Q97. Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) Speed of light is always same.. Choice (d) is the right one: The speed of light is constant throughout the universe and is known to have high precision. In a vacuum, light travels at 670,616,629 mph (1,079,252,849 km/h). The only thing absolute in this universe, according to Einstein, is the speed of light; the rest of everything is relative. Light travels at the speed of about 300,000 km per second, and it is always the same throughout the universe.
Q98. Weight of the lid Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: Sodium vapour lights are omnidirectional. Omnidirectional lights produce light in 360 degrees. This is a large system inefficiency because at least half of the light needs to be reflected and redirected to the desired area being illuminated. Whereas, whereas LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting technology.
Q99. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: Sodium vapour lights are omnidirectional. Omnidirectional lights produce light in 360 degrees. This is a large system inefficiency because at least half of the light needs to be reflected and redirected to the desired area being illuminated. Whereas, whereas LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting technology.
Q100. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced. Choice (c) is the right one: Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction, (thus) sliding is replaced in most machines by rolling with the use of ball bearings. The Rolling friction is minimal as compared to static friction and dynamic friction. So, ball bearings allow any direction of movement, and the friction associated is the least and the effort required to move them is also very less.
Q101. Polestar being visible in the sky Which of the above are optical illusions?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 2 and 4. Optical illusions (Visual illusions) are cool images perceived in a manner that differs from objective reality. y Dusk generally denotes the transition from day to night and is often used as another word for evening twilight.
Q102. Internal reflection Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct: Sodium vapour lights are omnidirectional. Omnidirectional lights produce light in 360 degrees. This is a large system inefficiency because at least half of the light needs to be reflected and redirected to the desired area being illuminated. Whereas, whereas LEDs are extremely energy efficient relative to every other commercially available lighting technology.
Q103. The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four. Gravitational force, weak nuclear force, electromagnetic force, and strong nuclear force are the four fundamental forces, and they govern everything that happens in the universe, from walking on the street to launching a rocket into space, to sticking a magnet on a refrigerator. Statement (a) is not correct: The gravitational force was described systematically by Isaac Newton in the 17th century.
8. Chemistry
Q104. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of (2025)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide. Cloud seeding involves dispersing substances like silver iodide or dry ice into clouds to act as nuclei for droplet formation, thereby inducing rainfall. This technique is used to enhance precipitation.
Q105. Preparation of industrial lubricants Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2 only. Coal gasification produces syngas, which is used for making ethanol and urea, but not nitroglycerine, which is made through nitration of glycerol. therefore, only two out of three options are valid.
Q106. Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because (2021)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) it is dipolar in nature. Water is termed the universal solvent due to its dipolar nature, allowing it to dissolve a wide variety of substances. Its polarity stems from the electronegativity difference between oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
Q107. Souring of milk Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 3 only. Coal gasification produces syngas, which is used for making ethanol and urea, but not nitroglycerine, which is made through nitration of glycerol. therefore, only two out of three options are valid.
Q108. In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: (2025) I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Only three. In electric vehicle (EV) batteries, cobalt, lithium, and nickel are used as cathode materials, while graphite is used as the anode. thus, graphite is incorrectly mentioned as a cathode component.
Q109. Consider the following: (2025) I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) All the three. Cigarette butts, eyeglass lenses, and car tires all contain plastic. Cellulose acetate in cigarette filters, synthetic polymers in lenses, and plastic-based synthetic rubber in tires confirm this. Thus, all three contain plastic, making (c) correct.
Q110. Consider the following substances: (2025) I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Only two. Coal gasification produces syngas, which is used for making ethanol and urea, but not nitroglycerine, which is made through nitration of glycerol. therefore, only two out of three options are valid.
9. Biology
Q111. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: (2025) I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) I, II and III. • Statement I correct: Monoclonal antibodies are lab-produced proteins mimicking natural antibodies. • Statement II correct: They bind specific antigens, stimulating immune response to eliminate targets. • Statement III correct: Being developed/tested for Nipah virus treatment.
Q112. Consider the following statements: (2025) I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (d) None. • Statement I incorrect: Viruses can survive in ocean water. • Statement II incorrect: Bacteriophages are viruses infecting bacteria. • Statement III incorrect: Viruses alter host cell transcriptional activity, inhibiting or stimulating biochemical functions for replication.
Q113. Which one of the following is synthesised in the human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow? (2024)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) Nitric oxide. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q114. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q115. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 4 only. Statement 1 correct: Probiotics include Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium, and Saccharomyces boulardii yeast, conferring health benefits. Statement 2 incorrect: Probiotics occur naturally in fermented foods/cultured milk and as supplements. Statement 3 correct: Probiotics in yogurt/supplements aid lactose digestion.
Q116. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole whilst an animal cell has many small vacuoles. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q117. Which of the following statements is not correct? (2019)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.. Option (a) correct: Hepatitis B (HBV) spreads via body fluids like HIV. Option (b) incorrect: Hepatitis B vaccine exists; no effective Hepatitis C vaccine. Option (c) correct: Hepatitis B/C affects 325 million, kills 1.4 million annually, second to tuberculosis (WHO). Option (d) correct: HBV symptoms appear 1–4 months post- infection, may be absent in young children.
Q118. Multiple chronic diseases in some people. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only. Statement 1 correct: Probiotics include Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium, and Saccharomyces boulardii yeast, conferring health benefits. Statement 2 incorrect: Probiotics occur naturally in fermented foods/cultured milk and as supplements. Statement 3 correct: Probiotics in yogurt/supplements aid lactose digestion.
Q119. Wind blowing Which of the above spread plant diseases?
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only. Statement 1 correct: Probiotics include Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium, and Saccharomyces boulardii yeast, conferring health benefits. Statement 2 incorrect: Probiotics occur naturally in fermented foods/cultured milk and as supplements. Statement 3 correct: Probiotics in yogurt/supplements aid lactose digestion.
Q120. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of (2014)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) algae and fungi. Lichens, symbiotic fungi (mycobiont) and photosynthetic algae/ cyanobacteria (photobiont), cover 8% of Earth’s land, thriving in extreme environments. Categorized by substrate (e.g., corticolous, saxicolous) and growth forms (crustose, foliose, fruticose, squamulose).
Q121. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) rate of respiration is decreased. Post-harvest fruits/vegetables respire; lowering storage temperature reduces respiration, chemical deterioration, and microbiological activity, but freezing must be avoided unless specifically prepared.
Q122. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because (2013)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation. Transplant shock occurs when seedling’s fine roots are damaged during transplant, reducing moisture uptake, causing imbalance with top growth demands.
Q123. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q124. HIV-AIDS Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q125. Sodium Which of the minerals given above is/are required by the human body for the contraction of muscles?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q126. plants Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q127. Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q128. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q129. Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
Q130. Vitamin E Night blindness Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2 only. Nitric Oxide formation, catalyzed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS), degrades L-arginine to L-citrulline and NO using oxygen and NADPH. NO acts as a vasodilator, enhancing blood flow.
UPSC Prelims 2026 Additions
Q131. Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct? 1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India. 2. It is India's first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64- bit dual-core microprocessor. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Both 1 and 2. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q44. DHRUV64 is an indigenous microprocessor designed by the SHAKTI processor team at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras. It was developed under the Digital India RISC-V Programme, an initiative designed to achieve self reliance in semiconductor and microprocessor design.
Q132. The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct? 1. The new standard is known as IS 19445: 2025. 2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies. 3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 2 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q45. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced IS 19445:2025, a national standard for the testing and evaluation of bomb disposal systems. The objective of this standard is to enhance interoperability and ensure uniformity of equipment used by various agencies involved in bomb disposal and counter-IED operations across India.
Q133. X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X': (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) John Clarke. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q46. This appears to be a repeated question. The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Clarke along with other recipients. John Clarke was born in the United Kingdom and was serving as a professor at the University of California, Berkeley at the time of the announcement.
Q134. Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is NOT correctly matched? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd.: Madhya Pradesh. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q48. Under India’s semiconductor mission, multiple semiconductor manufacturing and assembly facilities have been approved across different states. The semiconductor OSAT plant established by CG Power in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics is located in Sanand, Gujarat. Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt.
Q135. Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct? 1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration. 2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds. 3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access. 4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1, 2 and 4. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q51. Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology that securely records transactions across many computers. Each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, a timestamp, and transaction data, ensuring high security. The technology eliminates the need for a central authority, offering transparency, immutability, and traceability for various applications.
Q136. Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct? 1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease. 2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine. 3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 2 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q66. Genetic medicines are therapeutic agents that work by correcting, compensating for, or silencing faulty genes responsible for diseases. Examples include gene therapy, antisense oligonucleotides, and RNA interference therapies. Engineered viruses (viral vectors like adeno-associated viruses) and lipid nanoparticles (used in mRNA vaccines and therapies) serve as delivery vehicles or carriers for genetic medicines.
Q137. Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct? 1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability. 2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors. 3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 1 and 2 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q67. Large Language Models (LLMs) like GPT work by predicting the next token/word in a sequence. They assign probability distributions over possible next words and typically select based on highest probability (or use sampling strategies).
Q138. Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct? 1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross- section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material. 2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies. 3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 2 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q68. Stealth technology is intended to reduce the detectability of aircraft, ships, and other military platforms by radar, infrared systems, and other surveillance methods. One of its primary objectives is minimizing the radar cross-section (RCS) through specialized shaping and the use of Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM).
Q139. Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct? 1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection. 2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data. 3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium. Select the answer using the code given below. (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q69. Aircraft black boxes consist of two major components: the Flight Data Recorder (FDR), which records various flight parameters, and the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR), which captures cockpit conversations and sounds. Together, these systems preserve both flight and voice data. Black boxes are also equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) that emits ultrasonic signals to assist in locating wreckage underwater.
Q140. Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme: 1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities. 2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D- printed rocket engine. 3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) 1 and 2 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q71. IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) was set up in 2020 as an autonomous body under the Department of Space to promote, support, and authorize private sector participation in India’s space ecosystem. Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched its Agnibaan SOrTeD mission, featuring the world’s first flight using a single- piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic rocket engine..
Q141. Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct? 1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre. 2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm. 3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q72. Drone swarms generally operate using conventional communication frequencies such as UHF, VHF, Wi-Fi, and other radio frequency bands rather than the Terahertz band, which remains largely experimental and is not used in practical drone swarm operations.
Q142. Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct? 1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project. 2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. 3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q73. The GenomeIndia Project is an indigenous initiative of India and is independent of the Human Genome Project, which was an international effort completed in 2003. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, and is coordinated by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, along with multiple partner institutions.
Q143. Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct? 1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits. 2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T- Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (c) Both 1 and 2. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q74. The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023 with a total budget outlay of ₹6,003.65 crore for the period 2023–2031. The mission aims to strengthen India's capabilities in quantum technologies through advancements in quantum computing, communication, sensing, metrology, and materials research.
Q144. Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct? 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India. 2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration. 3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission. Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (b) 2 and 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q75. India’s Deep Ocean Mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and was approved in June 2021 with a budget allocation of ₹4,077 crore for a five-year period. The mission aims to explore and harness deep-sea resources while strengthening India’s capabilities in marine science and technology.
Q145. Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India: 1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1, 2 and 3. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q85. Mission Sudarshan Chakra is an initiative of the Indian Air Force (IAF) aimed at strengthening India’s integrated air defence network, ballistic missile defence systems, and aerial offensive capabilities. The mission seeks to improve rapid, precise, and effective defence responses while enhancing India’s strategic preparedness and self- reliance against evolving security challenges.
Q146. Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi: 1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress. 2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws. 3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Access Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (d) 3 only. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q90. The AI Impact Summit 2026, held in New Delhi, focused on shaping the future direction of artificial intelligence through an inclusive and development-oriented approach. The summit adopted an intellectual framework based on three guiding Sutras — People, Planet, and Prosperity.
Q147. Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India? 1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets 2. T-90 MK-III Tanks 3. Akula Class Submarine Select the answer using the code given below: (2026)
Explanation: Correct option: (a) 1 and 2. Source: UPSC GS Paper I 2026, Q93. India has increasingly emphasized domestic defence manufacturing through technology transfer agreements and strategic collaborations with partner countries, particularly Russia. Public sector undertakings such as Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and defence manufacturing units have played a major role in indigenous production of advanced military systems.